Just a quick history and if you don't wanna read it... Skip to the bottom where it says findings and give me your thoughts on whether or not this is an issue. I wish it was the issue, but I don't think it is.
History/Background:
I've had chronic uper back/scapula pain for about 10 years. I just now got an MRI done on my neck, all these years later. My infectious disease doctor(not an ortho) looked at the results and told me that there was a good chance that much of my problems(along with torn labrums in both shoulders) have come from the bulges. Well, I don't really believe him. I've learned that many doctors are far to eager to attribute a symptom to something unrelated, just because it boost their pride(sorry for the bitterness/skepticism, but I've been through hell on earth for 10 years). Some just want to be THE ONE who found the answer and are way to eager to say "such and such" is THE problem.
Anywho, my rant aside... I got MRI results faxed to me from the docs office because I want to clarify for myself, one way or another. Here are the results, are they as MINOR as I believe they are. Trust me, I WISH it was the problem and that after all these years I found it, but I don't believe this is that big of a deal. Any thoughts?
MRI Findings:
Saggital images demonstrate no malalignment or marrow signal abnormality in the visualized osseous structures. There MAY be a component of congenital spinal stenosis that adds to central canal narrowing at all levels.
At C5-6, there is no significant central canal narrowing despite minor broad-based bulge
At C6-7, there is a mild broad-based bulge causeing mild ventral flattening of the spinal cord