After a couple of years away from this board, hi everybody! You helped me a great deal. Recap:
First CT in 2004 (ER) said probable crohn's. Oral antibiotics and GI referral; GI gave no treatment. Next CT in 2005 (ER) said probable active crohn's disease - very high white count - wanted to admit to hospital but I refused. Took oral antibiotics; colonoscopy has pic of inflammation in ilieum. GI wrote "probably crohn's ilietis." I got Pentasa. After a couple of months on Pentasa, had the upper GI done. Rapid transit (30 min to colon) but otherwise normal. Camera endoscopy - had a wild vomiting episode when the camera passed through the "bad spot" - report says normal (wasn't flaring), so GI says: no crohn's. I asked for sulfasalazine instead of Pentasa, since I also had arthritis. about
a year later, doing okay. Then comes a rectal/perineal abcess episode, and the nurse practitioner at the GI office said: "you don't have crohn's, here are some antibiotics." No follow up appointment. Went to rheumatologist and got on Humira for inflammatory arthritis/AS. The tummy has done fairly well on Humira, probably a coincidence (sarcasm)
That was 2 years ago (no GI visits), and I've done pretty well except for still having to irrigate in order to eliminate (no signal). Wondering about colonic inertia. Since I have dilitation of the perineural root sleeves (or Tarlov cysts) on both sides at S2, also wondering about cauda equina syndrom, since the numbness around by bottom can't always be ignored and the bladder is getting a little numb and weak . . . . Anyway, going to a new GI in August. Any ideas on how to start off my relationship with her without sounding like an angry old woman (which I am)?