So my doc is starting me on azathioprine today. My last CT scan a week and a half ago showed a reduction in inflammation which can't be attributed to the prednisone I'm on now because I wasn't on it at the time of the scan. My GI is confused as to why I'm having so much pain still, since the inflammation is down. I don't have any noticeable stricturing/abcesses/fistulas but my pain comes in waves and is debilitating. I've had to drop my classes for the semester and cannot currently work. I don't do much of anything but lay on the couch in pain. It's awful.
My doc wants to perform another colonoscopy to see if there's something going on that has been missed that could be causing my pain. I have 8 inches of my lower small intestine/upper colon affected by the disease. My doc wants to send me to a surgeon if he finds there's still a lot of ulceration/inflammation when he gets in there with the scope.
My question is would a surgeon remove the diseased part of my intestines even if I don't have stricturing/fistulas? Obviously the affected part of my intestines is causing the pain, I'm just wondering if the other probs aren't present (strictures, etc.) would they still remove the diseased part? Any feedback would be REALLY appreciated. I'm having the colonoscopy repeated in the next two weeks.