I'm googling, but it's not answering my questions.
So here goes:
9/16/2016 - EM documented. Started doxy (100mg 1x day, 12 days).
9/20/2016 - B.B.s.l.(EIA) IgM 2.46 [Positive], IgM blot [Positive] (p41, p39, OspC B.B. sensu stricto, B. afzelii, B. garninii, B. spielmanii). IgG 4.1 [Negative], IgG blot [Negative] (No bands).
[9/20/2016 follow-up test on 11/22 - B.B.s.l.(EIA) IgM 2.39 [Positive], IgG 5.4 [Dubious] What is this? Why is the follow-up test numbers different??]
11/22/2016 - B.B.s.l. (EIA) IgM 2.34 [Positive], IgG 2.8 [Negative].
5/16/2017 - B.B.s.l. (EIA) IgM 5.00 [Positive], IgG 2.1 [Negative].
7/13/2017 - Lyme Total (EIA) 0.65 [Negative], IgM (blot) Positive (p100-, VIsE-, p58-, p41+, p39+, OspA-, OspC+, p18-), IgG (blot) [Negative] (no bands).
In the notes of the July test the doctor helpfully noted the persistent IgM without seroconversion to IgG. He also noted he thought the reason for this non-conversion was because I was treated. Really?
I am in Europe, and the only study I've found so far that seems directly relevant to me is this one /www.hindawi.com/journals/isrn/2012/719821/
. But I'm not sure how relevant it is.
So, I had EM, I had IgM, I had bands 41, 39, and OspC for over 6 months.
Why no seroconversion? Why the lack of any bands on IgG?
Could the lack of conversion explain why I still have lingering symptoms?
Or am I just extra-special like that?
Wait- now I'm finding old threads about
. Any new ideas since then?
Post Edited (Eiren) : 2/12/2018 1:02:29 PM (GMT-7)