I thought when the Neurologist said the lesions that I have c/b from 20 years ago it meant that since they were old
they had already done their damage. But now you all say that is not true. So why do they differentiate old and new and
if they both are damaging then why the distinction? And why do the old ones all of a sudden become more active, if
they had been quiet for some time. Or maybe some of the symptoms I had over the years were because of those?
Do they ever disappear?
Thanks for your answers!