I am writing because I am concerned about my husband. In 2003 he had some problems with his vision and saw a specialist. They said he had a blister on his retina. It went away and his vision was fine, but he has eyeball pain at times. Also, in 2003 he noticed dizziness especially during/after exercising. It seemed the higher his heart rate, the dizzier he felt. We went to an ENT first. He had a slightly abnormal ENG which showed mild labyrinthitis which is inner ear trouble, but the ENT didn't think it was bad enough to cause the dizziness. He went to a neurologist and had various tests. MRI, EEG, etc. All were normal. He went to a heart specialist and had tests and those were fine also. Over the next couple of years, his dizziness was kind of always there, but not real bad. He could work and it didn't seem to bother him too much. He also had really bad ringing in his ears.
He used to exercise a lot but since he gets dizzy when he exercises, he had stopped, but this summer he started riding his bike with me. The dizziness was slight, but not too bad. One day we did a real intense bike ride and when he got home the dizziness was really bad. He almost got sick. Then that night he woke up at night feeling disoriented. He got out of bed and when he tried to walk, it was like he was veering to the left. That lasted about 3 minutes and went away. He stopped exercising and the dizziness leveled off again. He went back to the ENT and he didn't seem to think it was ear related. He went back to the local neurologist and he did an MRI and an MRA. I got a copy of my husband's medical records because we are supposed to be transferring to a different state for my husband's job. In fact, he has already moved there. I was reading a letter from the Neuro to the general doctor. He talked about the eye episode my husband had 3 years ago and wondered if it could have been from a demyelinating process although he said his examination of my husband was negative. He decided to do the MRI with and without contrast to see if it was any different from the MRI he had 2 years ago. He wanted to see if there were any lesions that could be consistent with a demyelinating process. I called for the results of the MRI/MRA since my husband had already moved. The nurse told me that "there were several nonspecific small white matter lesions. No abnormality to explain the vertigo." She said the doctor just said he should repeat the MRI in 6 months.
Since then, my husband has had a couple of episodes where his arms felt heavy and it was hard to hang on to a pen at work.
The doctor never stated if the MRI now was any different than the one two years ago. He mentioned in a letter to my husband's general doctor that he was going to compare the two, but he never said anything to us.
I am looking for some reassurance because it just dawned on us that maybe my husband has MS. The doctor never mentioned any possibility about it, but after reading his report and looking at his symptoms, we are concerned. I would think that if the doctor looked at the old MRI and saw new lesions, he would have been concerned and mentioned it to us. Can they tell on an MRI if the lesions look like MS lesions or not? I know everyone can have white patches on their brain that mean nothing. I just don't know what "nonspecific white lesions" mean. I would hope that if they were looking for a reason for his dizziness, that they would have considered MS as a diagnosis.
Also, can a doctor tell if you have opticial neuritis just from examining your eyes in the office? I am asking because the doctor said that that test was negative.
Besides this being a huge health concern, it is very concerning because I am going to be giving up my job in January to move to this other state with my husband. I do not want to quit a job if there is a chance he could have a possible disabling condition that could hinder his working in the future.
Anyone have any insight or thoughts?
THanks so much and sorry for being so long.