I know this is a really stupid question in some ways, but I had my urologist give me a copy of my surgical pathological report at my last visit, the report said the stage was T2, no spread to lymph nodes nor seminal vesicles, just stage T2. Shouldn't it say T2a or T2b or T2c? I'm somewhat confused by this, didn't think to ask uro at the time, just wondering why it didn't specify more.............
my age=52 when all this happened,
PSA went from 1.9 to 2.85 in one year, urologist ordered biopsy,
First biopsy on 03/08, "suspicious for cancer but not diagnostic"
Second biopsy on 08/14/08, 2/12 cores positive for Prostate Cancer on R side, 1 core=5% Ca, other core = 25% Ca, Gleason Score= 3+3=6 both cores,
Clinical Stage T1C
Bilateral nerve sparing Robotic Surgery on 09/11/08, pathological stage T2A at surgery,
No signs of spread, organ contained,
3 0's in a row now, 7 months out
Incontinence gone in early December '08,
ED remains, uro said try oral meds and then trimix for sex only now