In a case such as this, where it has taken almost three years for PSA to rise, why would SRT be the next protocol? I ask not only for Reachout, but also for myself as I know I am at a pretty significant risk for recurrence.
After three years, why would it be assumed that a PSA rise is due to a recurrence in the prostate bed? Maybe my understanding is faulty, but I would think that if there was cancerous prostate tissue left behind, a recurrence would have happened fairly quickly, wouldn't it?
I'm just scared to death of radiation treatment. It just seems to me it's not much more than a shot in the dark in hopes that the photons hit the cancerous tissue. I mean, how can the doctors be sure that the recurrence is happening in the prostate bed and not somewhere else?
Sorry if I'm going off on a tangent here; I'm just trying to understand.
· John (HD_Rider)
· Age at diagnosis: 49 (now age 50)
· PSA: 04/2007, 3.5; 03/2011, 4.5
· Biopsy, 12 cores: 04/13/11
· Dx: Gleason 3+4=7, 04/19/11
· DaVinci: 06/09/11; cath removed: 06/17/11
· Post-Op Report: pT2cpN0, Gleason downgraded to 3+3=6, SM+, PNI+, SVI-, LNI-
· PSA: 07/2011, <.01; 11/2011, =.01; 01/2012, <.01