First, I would like to report that I am starting to go into remission after a month-long flare. My previous remission lasted two years but alas, UC reared it's ugly head. I am presently taking azathioprine (generic) and am at the end of a prednisone taper and so far, my symptoms have subsided. Hopefully it will hold once I am no longer taking any prednisone (currently taking 10mg for the next two days and will then take 5mg for 4 days).
So most of us understand that somewhere along the way, our immune systems decided to wager war on either all or part of our colon. I've read literature that suggests that when the natural flora (bacteria) of the colon are displace by those that our immune systems have historically recognized as pathogenic/harmful that this triggers the immunological response. This phenomena has been linked to antibiotics that ultimately kill off these bacteria, allowing the harmful ones to take up residence. Many of us, however, have not been able to recall being exposed to any antibiotics and therefore, are left scratching our heads at this explanation and are resigned to the believe that we might've just drawn a short straw. With all of this being said, I was wondering if anyone has given thought to whether or not the antibiotics that might be found in pasteurized, 'non-organic' dairy products could contribute of conditions favorable for the incitation of a colitis flare? This, of course, is under the assumption that temperature associated with pasteurization does not nullify the effect of the antibiotic by molecular degradation and that one's individual colonic-bacteriological makeup would render them susceptible to those antibiotics. I am going to look into this more but wanted to gather some other perspectives.
Before signing off, I'd just like to say that if you're reading this, most likely you are like me and you fight and live with this disease. I know it isn't easy, but please try to stay positive.